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AAPC CPC Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	Procurement: This section measures the skills of Construction Quality Engineers in establishing quality requirements for procurement, aligning trade partner requirements, and managing resources for inspections. It also focuses on the skills of Construction Procurement Managers in incorporating material control, resource identification, and mobilization strategies into the resource management process to ensure quality procurement.
Topic 2	Pre-contract Phase: This section measures the skills of Construction Project Managers in understanding project delivery, contract, and payment models, including identifying client types, contract types, payment models, and necessary documentation. It also measures the skills of Construction Estimators in understanding the project scope, schedule, and necessary resources.
Topic 3	Construction Phase: This section measures the skills of Construction Quality Engineers in implementing quality controls, managing nonconformances, implementing changes, monitoring and measuring quality, managing documentation, and facilitating continuous improvement. It also evaluates the skills of Construction Site Managers in ensuring effective monitoring and management of the construction site, promoting safety, and maintaining quality standards throughout the construction process.

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AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Sample Questions (Q91-Q96):

NEW QUESTION # 91
The knee joint consists of which three compartments?

A. Medial, trochlea groove, and vestibular
B. Posterior malleolus, scapula, and fibular facet
C. Medial, lateral, and patellofemoral
D. Medial, lateral, and cochlea

Answer: C

Explanation:
The knee joint consists of three primary compartments:
1. Medial compartment: The inside part of the knee, which includes the femur and tibia interaction on the inner side.
2. Lateral compartment: The outside part of the knee, where the femur and tibia meet on the outer side.
3. Patellofemoral compartment: The area between the patella (kneecap) and the femur.
These three compartments are essential for knee joint stability and function, allowing movement and weight- bearing activities.
B: Trochlea groove and vestibular are not associated with knee anatomy.
C: Posterior malleolus, scapula, and fibular facet do not relate to knee compartments; the malleolus is in the ankle, scapula in the shoulder, and fibular facet is not part of the primary knee compartments.
D: Cochlea is unrelated to knee anatomy and refers to a part of the inner ear.
Thus, the correct answer is A. Medial, lateral, and patellofemoral.

NEW QUESTION # 92
A patient complains of tarry, black stool, and epigastric tightness. An esophagogastroduodenoscopy is recommended to evaluate the source of the bleeding. The endoscope is inserted orally. The esophagus appears normal on scope insertion. No evidence of bleeding in the stomach. The scope is then passed into the duodenum, where a polyp is found and removed with hot biopsy forceps. No evidence of bleeding post procedure.
What CPT code is reported?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 93
A patient presents to the labor and delivery department for a planned cesarean section for triplets. She is at 37 weeks gestation. She is given a continuous epidural for the delivery.
What anesthesia coding is reported?

A. 01961
B. 01958
C. 01967, 01968
D. 01967

Answer: C

Explanation:
The patient presents for a planned cesarean section for triplets and receives continuous epidural anesthesia.
CPT code 01967 is used for neuraxial labor analgesia/anesthesia for planned vaginal delivery, and code 01968 is an add-on code for cesarean delivery following neuraxial labor analgesia/anesthesia. Since this is a planned cesarean section with triplets, both codes 01967 and 01968 are applicable.References: CPT Professional Edition (current year), AMA.

NEW QUESTION # 94
Day 1 - A provider admits the patient to observation care for type 2 diabetes mellitus with hyperglycemia.
The provider orders a HbA1c, a urine (microalbumin), and kidney function lab tests.
Blood sugar is high and poorly controlled. The provider discusses the case with the patient's endocrinologist.
The provider prescribes an IV insulin drip, along with SQ insulin and keeps the patient in observation overnight.
Day 2 - Patient is in observation care and the provider orders a blood glucose test. The patient's glucose levels have improved. The provider places an order for the dietitian to see the patient.
Provider
documents spending a total time of 25 minutes with the patient.
Day 3 - Patient has a blood glucose test. The patient's glucose level is back to normal. The provider documents spending 15 minutes with the patient. The provider discharges the patient.
What E/M coding is reported by the physician for the patient in observation care?

A. 99235, 99231, 99238
B. 99221, 99232, 99239
C. 99222, 99231, 99238
D. 99235, 99238

Answer: A

Explanation:
For a patient in observation care, selecting the correct E/M codes requires evaluating each day's service level and the provider's documentation.
Day 1: The patient was admitted for observation, and the physician prescribed IV and SQ insulin, noting diabetes with hyperglycemia requiring complex management. The CPTcode 99235 is appropriate here because it represents an initial observation or inpatient care for patients with high-complexity medical decision-making (MDM), which aligns with the patient's unstable glucose and the management requirements.
Day 2: The patient's glucose levels improved, and the provider documented spending 25 minutes with the patient in continued observation care. Since this is an established patient with continued observation, 99231 applies here, indicating subsequent observation care with low MDM complexity.
Day 3: The provider documented spending 15 minutes with the patient, whose glucose levels normalized, and then discharged the patient from observation care. Code 99238 is used for a discharge from observation care and is selected based on discharge times under 30 minutes.
These codes were selected based on CPTguidelines for observation care and the provider's time-based documentation. This matches the medical decision complexity documented per the case and code descriptions available for observation care management.

NEW QUESTION # 95
A 30-year-old patient with a scalp defect is having plastic surgery to insert tissue expanders. The provider inserts the implants, closes the skin, and increases the volume of the expanders by injecting saline solution. Tissue is expanded until a satisfactory aesthetic outcome is obtained to repair the scalp defect.
What CPT code is reported?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 96
......

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